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THE Reason why Germany overran Poland first


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Actually, they took Czechoslovakia first, they were an even tougher opponent! 1 000 000 man regular and reserve army, fully mobilized, with a few hundred fairly modern tanks, modern aircraft, and GREAT defensive positions. The Czech's could have probably beaten Germany in 1938 all on their own!

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The really sad thing is, is the Poland refused to allow Russian troops to cross their border to defend Czechoslovakia in 1938 should Germany attack. If Poland, Russia, and Czechoslovakia taken on Germany in 1938, there would have been no WWII. Hard to say wether or not Russia would/could take over Poland, Czechoslovakia, etc.. Possibly, these armies would have been too strong (as they would also have the backing of virtually the rest of Europe should Russia get too greedy)

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I just finished reading a book by Libor Vitez, a Czech general. He inspected the Maginot Line in October of 1940. His assessment is that the Czech fortifications, which were much weaker than the ML, couldn´t have delayed the Germans significantly. He is obviously pro-German, this has probably influenced his assessment rolleyes.gifbut it´s a interesting book. (It mixes pictures of destroyed forts with "tourist-pictures" of the Town Hall in Freiburg and the cathedral in Strassbourg. smile.gif)

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German staff assesment after the taking of the czech fort line was that these forts would have been safe from any pre-war German artillery up to and including the 150mm guns.

The Germans felt they could have broken through but would have bled the German Army white trying and it is notable that they felt that they would have had to take the bunkers by EXTREMELY expensive infantry assaults.

All in all ANY fort line can be taken but the czech fort line was determined to be extremely tough to take by the Germans. (They rated it tougher than the Maginot line since it couldn't have been outflanked.)

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General S,

This,with regards to "With Fire and Sword", quoted from Amazon:

"Synopsis

This powerful novel, "a Polish Gone with the Wind" (New York Times Book Review), is set in the 17th century and follows the struggle of the kingdom of Poland to maintain its unity in the face of the Cossack-led peasant rebellion. Foreword by James Michener."

An excellent read, whether you're Polish or not!

chaos

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I would realy have liked to see what would have happened if Poland was given enough time to fully mobilize, let alone get Modern tanks from France (Already had a battalion of R-35's). 1 000 000 men were organized by Septembery 39, not their full army. Plus, the Poles decided to defend the undefendable territory at the boarder, imagine if they decided to defend the river lines? The Polish, and indeed the French and Belgian Armies of 1939-40 were severely underated by history. Circumstance, not their relative quality, resulted in their defeat. Tactics, and their inability to quickly adapt to them was also their downfall.

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An interesting detail is that, according to Gen. Vitez, the heavy Czech fortifications were along the Polish border. (Because of the dreaded Poles? wink.gif) They stretched from Nachod (125 km ENE of Prague) to Ostrava (250 km east of Prague). Around Prague and along the German border (and some of the Polish) were light fortifications. There were another line of light fortifications NW of Prague, approximately halfway to the border.

Along parts of the Austrian border there were no fortifications at all.

The Czech built forts on reverse slopes to protect them from accurate artillery but on the other hand they were unable to fire observed fire from the guns.

Gen. Vitez should not be taken as a independent observer, he certainly knew which way the wind was blowing in 1940-41. He thinks that the war has been "merciful" (as opposed to "The World War") thanks to "the excellent tactics used during the fighting over the fortifications on the Rhine and the new, very efficient weapons the German army had at their disposal."

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It was all politics Major Tom, The established european powers had "channels" to go thru to get anything done. While Hitler just had his general staff that had sworn an oath of allegence to him personally.

I believe also that the French, Polish, Czech and to some extent the British also had at least equal equipment capabilites as the Germans had in '39. It was just the "eager" younger generals that Hitler put in command had some very good ideas about lightning warfare and were looking for the chance to show it, as against other european countries used to fighting/defending stagnant lines of defense that had worked for them over the previous 100+ years.

Just thoughts.

Thanks

werfer

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As I remember (Yeah, like I was acuatlly there or something :P), Poland was is a state of Total re-struchture and was Very very Weak because they where trading their Mauser copys and Heavy Outdated machine guns with BARs, Browning .30 Cals (In 8mm Mauser I think) and alot of different Browning designs and the Polish "Radom" Pistol. Anyways, they where still getting tanks from the Tommies and maybe the French.

MG

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If Poland was invaded in September 1940 the Germans would have had a tougher time. Not only would their armoured force be probably the size of a division of effective battle tanks, but, their regular forces would have been drastically modernized. 40mm Bofors AA guns were being producecd in large numbers, and even the few in the army were able to inflict high losses on the Luftwaffe. Even uniforms were being updated. The Polish army, much like that of the French, were caught by the Germans before they were ready for modern warfare.

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