Col. Gen. Guderian Posted May 23, 2004 Share Posted May 23, 2004 I just defeated the Low countries at the first turn, and France in another 2 turns. Is that impressive? Or is it just talk from a naive 'n00b'? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kuniworth Posted May 23, 2004 Share Posted May 23, 2004 That's very good. I won't believe it until you describe it however. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Les the Sarge 9-1 Posted May 23, 2004 Share Posted May 23, 2004 LC in one move is common, France in 2 makes me suspicious hehe. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Col. Gen. Guderian Posted May 23, 2004 Author Share Posted May 23, 2004 I obviously can't remember it exactly how it went, but here it goes... 1st Turn-I use the 1st and 2nd airfleets to attack Brussels which usually brings it's corps strength to about 6 or 7. I then attack it to the south east with the 6th army, and this usually brings it's strength to about 3 or 4. Then whilst I was experimenting, I came accross a complete fluke. If you swing the 16th Panzer around and below Brussels and attack it, it usually takes off about 4 or 5 of the defenders strength, in this case destroying the garrison altogether. I then occupied Brussels with the 12th army I think. From there on my memory gets a bit hazy. There are a few things I do remember doing though. I attacked the french army to the northwest of the Maginot line with the 4th airfleet, and then battered it again with one of the armies (by this stage I had decided to take the 2nd army from the east and redeploy it where there was room in the low countries.) Then i just battered the middle French army (which was south west of Brussels) and the BEF with the 15th and 19th Panzers. 2nd turn-I think it was the 15th Panzer that nearly got destroyed before this turn as it was facing the BEF and the most northerly French army, as well as being in the range of the British AF and strategic bombers. I had to take it out of the line to reinforce it but I had compelled all the frontier armies to retreat the turn before. So I basicly advanced and tore the battered and dispersed armies to shreds avoiding the maginot line completely. Rather than using my airfleets, i just moved them within range of Paris. 3rd turn-I bypassed 2 French armies which were by the coast and then encircled Paris. By this time, the French AF had left for Britain. With the three airfleets in range and ready, with complete air superiority, the city fell with a couple of armies having not used their turns. Is that accurate enough? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Col. Gen. Guderian Posted May 23, 2004 Author Share Posted May 23, 2004 Originally posted by Les the Sarge 9-1: LC in one move is common, France in 2 makes me suspicious hehe. It was more luck than anything. I just used the right units against the right units by accident I suppose. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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