Fubarno Posted August 2, 2002 Share Posted August 2, 2002 How does the game decide when the Soviet's Siberian army is transfered west to confront the invading Germans? My limited knowledge (compared to some at this bbs) recall that the Soviets historically moved their Siberian armies in the fall of 41 and they really began to take effect in the winter at the battle of Moscow. Contrast this to the demo (in CA have not recieved my full game yet ) where the Soviets are transferring the Siberian Army in the spring of 41, March 21st specifically in one game. Historically, did the Soviets established a non-agression pact with Japan this early in the war, allowing them to transfer these forces west at an earlier date? If so why didn't the Soviets do so? Any feedback would be appreciated. [ August 02, 2002, 05:31 PM: Message edited by: Fubarno ] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sol Invictus Posted August 2, 2002 Share Posted August 2, 2002 I'm guessing there is a random element at work here. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fubarno Posted August 2, 2002 Author Share Posted August 2, 2002 I just looked up the Soviet-Japanese Non-Agression Pact and it wasn't even signed until April 13, 1941. Thus the Soviets transferring the Siberian army in march of 41 is a bit unrealistic in SC. So, if one goes for the early Barbarossa and the Soviets transfer the Siberian army b4 April 13th, one must accept that the SC Stalin is gambling on the japanese leaving his eastern front alone with no treaty in place. Use that old 'suspension of disbelief'. A nice option might have been to allow the Japanese to attack the eastern USSR but I guess that will be in the global SC Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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